अगर आपने UPSC Combined Medical Services (CMS) Examination 2026 के लिए आवेदन किया है, तो आपके लिए बड़ी अपडेट है। संघ लोक सेवा आयोग (UPSC) ने 24 जुलाई 2026 को UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026 जारी कर दिया है। उम्मीदवार अब अपना e-Admit Card आधिकारिक वेबसाइट से डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं।
इस वर्ष UPSC Combined Medical Services Examination 2026 के माध्यम से कुल 1,358 मेडिकल ऑफिसर पदों पर भर्ती की जाएगी। इसमें Central Health Service (CHS), Indian Railways, New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) और Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) के विभिन्न पदों शामिल हैं।
यदि आप परीक्षा देने जा रहे हैं, तो इस लेख में आपको Admit Card डाउनलोड प्रक्रिया, परीक्षा तिथि, एग्जाम शेड्यूल, परीक्षा पैटर्न, विस्तृत सिलेबस, पात्रता, रिक्तियां, महत्वपूर्ण निर्देश, तैयारी टिप्स और महत्वपूर्ण लिंक की पूरी जानकारी मिलेगी।
UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026: Overview
| विवरण | जानकारी |
|---|---|
| परीक्षा का नाम | UPSC Combined Medical Services (CMS) Examination 2026 |
| आयोजित करने वाली संस्था | Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) |
| कुल पद | 1,358 |
| पद | Medical Officer |
| Admit Card जारी | 24 जुलाई 2026 |
| परीक्षा तिथि | 02 अगस्त 2026 (रविवार) |
| परीक्षा मोड | ऑफलाइन (OMR आधारित) |
| प्रश्न प्रकार | Objective (MCQ) |
| आधिकारिक वेबसाइट | UPSC |
UPSC CMS 2026 Important Dates
UPSC CMS भर्ती प्रक्रिया से जुड़े सभी महत्वपूर्ण कार्यक्रम नीचे दिए गए हैं।
| इवेंट | तिथि |
|---|---|
| नोटिफिकेशन जारी | 11 मार्च 2026 |
| ऑनलाइन आवेदन शुरू | 11 मार्च 2026 |
| आवेदन की अंतिम तिथि | 31 मार्च 2026 (शाम 6:00 बजे तक) |
| e-Admit Card जारी | 24 जुलाई 2026 |
| लिखित परीक्षा | 02 अगस्त 2026 |
| Personality Test | लिखित परीक्षा परिणाम के बाद |
| Final Result | बाद में घोषित होगा |
UPSC CMS Exam Date 2026 एवं परीक्षा शेड्यूल
परीक्षा तिथि: 02 अगस्त 2026 (रविवार)
Paper-I
- समय: सुबह 9:30 बजे से 11:30 बजे तक
- विषय:
- General Medicine
- Paediatrics
Paper-II
- समय: दोपहर 2:00 बजे से 4:00 बजे तक
- विषय:
- Surgery
- Gynaecology & Obstetrics
- Preventive & Social Medicine
महत्वपूर्ण
- सुबह की परीक्षा के लिए 9:00 बजे के बाद प्रवेश नहीं मिलेगा।
- दोपहर की परीक्षा के लिए 1:30 बजे के बाद प्रवेश बंद हो जाएगा।
- UPSC ने उम्मीदवारों को Face Authentication, Identity Verification और Frisking के लिए परीक्षा केंद्र पर कम से कम 1½ घंटे पहले पहुंचने की सलाह दी है।
UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026 कैसे डाउनलोड करें?
उम्मीदवार अपना e-Admit Card निम्न प्रक्रिया से डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं।
- UPSC Online पोर्टल पर जाएं।
- UPSC CMS 2026 Admit Card की लिंक खोलें।
- Registration ID या Roll Number चुनें।
- Date of Birth दर्ज करें।
- Captcha भरें।
- Submit पर क्लिक करें।
- Admit Card डाउनलोड करें।
- साफ एवं स्पष्ट प्रिंट निकालकर सुरक्षित रखें।
ध्यान दें: UPSC किसी भी उम्मीदवार को डाक द्वारा Admit Card नहीं भेजेगा।
UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026 पर क्या-क्या जांचें?
Admit Card डाउनलोड करने के बाद निम्न विवरण अवश्य जांचें—
- उम्मीदवार का नाम
- Roll Number
- Registration Number
- Photograph
- QR Code
- परीक्षा केंद्र
- परीक्षा तिथि
- परीक्षा समय
- Photo ID विवरण
यदि किसी प्रकार की त्रुटि दिखाई देती है तो तुरंत soe13.upsc@gov.in पर ईमेल करें।
UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026: महत्वपूर्ण निर्देश
UPSC द्वारा जारी आधिकारिक प्रेस नोट (24 जुलाई 2026) के अनुसार उम्मीदवारों को निम्न निर्देशों का पालन करना अनिवार्य है।
परीक्षा केंद्र पर क्या लेकर जाएं?
- Printed e-Admit Card
- वही Photo ID जिसकी संख्या Admit Card में दर्ज है
- Black Ball Point Pen
- Pencil
- Transparent Water Bottle
- यदि फोटो स्पष्ट नहीं है तो
- एक वैध Photo ID
- दो Passport Size Photographs
- प्रत्येक Session के लिए एक फोटो
परीक्षा केंद्र पर क्या ले जाना प्रतिबंधित है?
निम्न वस्तुएं पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित हैं—
- Mobile Phone (स्विच ऑफ होने पर भी)
- Smart Watch
- Digital Watch
- Bluetooth Device
- Earphones
- Calculator
- Laptop
- Tablet
- Books
- Notes
- Study Material
- Bag
- Valuable Items
- किसी भी प्रकार का IT Gadget
- नोट लिखे हुए Eraser आदि
यदि किसी उम्मीदवार के पास प्रतिबंधित वस्तु पाई जाती है तो—
- उम्मीदवारी रद्द की जा सकती है।
- FIR दर्ज हो सकती है।
- अन्य कानूनी कार्रवाई भी की जा सकती है।
Wrist Watch संबंधी नियम
- सामान्य (Simple) Wrist Watch की अनुमति है।
- Smart Watch या Communication सुविधा वाली घड़ी पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित है।
नाम बदलने वाले उम्मीदवारों के लिए
यदि उम्मीदवार ने आवेदन के बाद अपना नाम बदला है तो परीक्षा केंद्र पर सरकार द्वारा जारी ऐसा Photo ID प्रस्तुत करना होगा जिसमें नया नाम दर्ज हो।
OMR शीट भरने के नियम
- केवल Black Ball Point Pen का उपयोग करें।
- Attendance Sheet भी Black Ball Point Pen से भरें।
UPSC CMS Exam Pattern 2026
UPSC CMS परीक्षा दो चरणों में आयोजित की जाती है।
चरण-1: Written Examination
- कुल अंक: 500
- Mode: Offline
- OMR आधारित परीक्षा
- भाषा: केवल अंग्रेज़ी
- Objective Questions
- प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर 1/3 अंक की Negative Marking
- Calculator की अनुमति नहीं
| Paper | विषय | प्रश्न | अंक | समय |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper-I | General Medicine (96) + Paediatrics (24) | 120 | 250 | 2 घंटे |
| Paper-II | Surgery (40) + Gynaecology & Obstetrics (40) + Preventive & Social Medicine (40) | 120 | 250 | 2 घंटे |
चरण-2: Personality Test
- कुल अंक: 100
केवल लिखित परीक्षा में सफल उम्मीदवारों को इंटरव्यू के लिए बुलाया जाएगा।
Final Merit
अंतिम मेरिट निम्न आधार पर तैयार होगी—
- Written Exam: 500 अंक
- Personality Test: 100 अंक
कुल: 600 अंक
UPSC CMS Syllabus 2026
UPSC CMS का सिलेबस MBBS Standard पर आधारित है।
Paper-I
General Medicine
इसमें मुख्य रूप से निम्न विषय शामिल हैं—
- Cardiology
- Respiratory Diseases
- Gastrointestinal Diseases
- Genito-Urinary Diseases
- Neurology
- Haematology
- Endocrinology
- Metabolic Disorders
- Communicable Diseases
- Viral
- Bacterial
- Protozoal
- Fungal
- Nutrition
- Growth Disorders
- Dermatology
- Musculoskeletal Disorders
- Psychiatry
- Emergency Medicine
- Common Poisoning
- Snake Bite
- Tropical Medicine
- Critical Care
- Vaccines
- Pathophysiology
Paediatrics
- Childhood Emergencies
- Newborn Care
- Developmental Milestones
- Poisoning
- Accidents
- Immunization
- Child Health National Programmes
Paper-II
Surgery
- Wounds
- Surgical Infections
- Tumours
- ENT
- Ophthalmology
- Traumatology
- Orthopaedics
- Head & Neck
- Breast
- Liver
- Biliary System
- Pancreas
- Alimentary Tract
- Abdominal Injuries
- Urology
- Neurosurgery
- Anaesthesia
- Pre एवं Post-operative Care
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
- Ante-natal Care
- Intra-natal Care
- Post-natal Care
- High-risk Pregnancy
- Labour Management
- Family Planning
- Genital Tract Infections
Preventive & Social Medicine (PSM)
- Epidemiology
- Demography
- Nutrition
- Environmental Health
- Occupational Health
- National Health Programmes
- Communicable Diseases
- Non-Communicable Diseases
- Health Education
UPSC CMS Vacancy 2026
इस भर्ती के तहत कुल 1,358 रिक्तियां (PwBD आरक्षण सहित) प्रस्तावित हैं।
| पद | रिक्तियां |
|---|---|
| Medical Officers Grade (Central Health Service) | 864 |
| Assistant Divisional Medical Officer (Railways) | 450 |
| GDMO (NDMC) | 14 |
| GDMO Grade-II (MCD) | 30 |
| कुल | 1,358 |
UPSC CMS Eligibility 2026
शैक्षणिक योग्यता
- MBBS Final Examination (Written एवं Practical) उत्तीर्ण होना आवश्यक है।
- Final Year MBBS विद्यार्थी भी Provisional रूप से आवेदन कर सकते हैं।
- नियुक्ति से पहले Internship पूरी करना अनिवार्य होगा।
आयु सीमा
01 अगस्त 2026 के अनुसार—
- सामान्य अधिकतम आयु: 32 वर्ष
- जन्म 02 अगस्त 1994 या उसके बाद होना चाहिए।
- CHS Medical Officer Grade के लिए अधिकतम आयु: 35 वर्ष
आयु में छूट
सरकारी नियमों के अनुसार—
- SC/ST: 5 वर्ष
- OBC: 3 वर्ष
- PwBD: 10 वर्ष
- अन्य श्रेणियों को नियमानुसार छूट
UPSC CMS 2026 की तैयारी कैसे करें?
अच्छे स्कोर के लिए निम्न रणनीति अपनाएं—
- National Health Programmes पर विशेष ध्यान दें।
- Emergency Medicine एवं Common Clinical Scenarios अच्छी तरह तैयार करें।
- Infectious Diseases और PSM को बार-बार दोहराएं।
- Obstetric Emergencies का गहन अभ्यास करें।
- Standard MBBS Books और नवीनतम ICMR तथा MoHFW Guidelines पढ़ें।
- पिछले 8–10 वर्षों के UPSC CMS प्रश्नपत्र हल करें।
- OMR filling का नियमित अभ्यास करें।
- अंतिम 7–10 दिनों के लिए एक Short Revision Notebook तैयार रखें जिसमें Drug Doses, Immunization Schedule, National Programmes और महत्वपूर्ण तथ्य हों।
- Negative Marking को ध्यान में रखते हुए बिना तैयारी के अनुमान लगाकर उत्तर देने से बचें।
- UPSC की आधिकारिक वेबसाइट पर जारी होने वाले नए नोटिस नियमित रूप से देखें।
UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026: Important Links
| लिंक | विवरण |
|---|---|
| e-Admit Card | UPSC Online Portal |
| आधिकारिक वेबसाइट | UPSC |
| CMS 2026 परीक्षा पेज | UPSC CMS Examination 2026 |
| Admit Card में त्रुटि | soe13.upsc@gov.in |
FAQs
Q1. UPSC CMS Admit Card 2026 कब जारी हुआ?
उत्तर: UPSC CMS 2026 का e-Admit Card 24 जुलाई 2026 को जारी किया गया।
Q2. UPSC CMS 2026 परीक्षा कब होगी?
उत्तर: लिखित परीक्षा 02 अगस्त 2026 (रविवार) को आयोजित होगी।
Q3. UPSC CMS 2026 में कुल कितने पद हैं?
उत्तर: इस भर्ती के माध्यम से 1,358 मेडिकल ऑफिसर पदों पर भर्ती की जाएगी।
Q4. क्या UPSC CMS परीक्षा में नकारात्मक अंकन होता है?
उत्तर: हाँ। प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर 1/3 अंक काटे जाते हैं।
Q5. UPSC CMS परीक्षा किस भाषा में होती है?
उत्तर: लिखित परीक्षा केवल अंग्रेज़ी माध्यम में आयोजित की जाती है।
Q6. परीक्षा केंद्र पर कौन-सा पेन ले जाना चाहिए?
उत्तर: OMR उत्तर-पत्रक और उपस्थिति पत्रक भरने के लिए Black Ball Point Pen का ही उपयोग करें।
UPSC CMS Exam 2026 MCQs
General Medicine (Cardiology, Respiratory Medicine, Gastroenterology, Endocrinology, Nephrology & Neurology)
Q1. Which cardiac biomarker rises earliest after acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. LDH
Answer: ✅ C. Myoglobin
Explanation: Myoglobin rises within 1–2 hours after MI but has low specificity. Cardiac troponins are the most specific markers.
Q2. The first-line drug recommended for acute anaphylaxis is:
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) IM
D. Salbutamol
Answer: ✅ C. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) IM
Explanation: Intramuscular adrenaline (0.5 mg of 1:1000 solution in adults) is the life-saving first-line treatment for anaphylaxis.
Q3. Which heart valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic heart disease?
A. Aortic valve
B. Pulmonary valve
C. Mitral valve
D. Tricuspid valve
Answer: ✅ C. Mitral valve
Explanation: The mitral valve is involved in nearly all cases of rheumatic heart disease, producing mitral stenosis or regurgitation.
Q4. ST-segment elevation in ECG usually indicates:
A. Stable angina
B. NSTEMI
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D. Pericardial effusion
Answer: ✅ C. Transmural myocardial infarction
Explanation: ST-segment elevation is characteristic of acute transmural myocardial infarction (STEMI).
Q5. Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Nifedipine
Answer: ✅ C. ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and can cause fetal renal damage, oligohydramnios, and fetal death.
Q6. The GOLD classification is used for:
A. Asthma severity
B. COPD severity
C. Tuberculosis staging
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: ✅ B. COPD severity
Explanation: GOLD (Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease) classifies COPD based on airflow limitation and symptoms.
Q7. Which finding is most characteristic of bronchial asthma?
A. Irreversible airflow obstruction
B. Reversible airflow obstruction
C. Pleural effusion
D. Restrictive lung disease
Answer: ✅ B. Reversible airflow obstruction
Explanation: Asthma is characterized by reversible airway obstruction and bronchial hyperresponsiveness.
Q8. Which organism is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: ✅ B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae remains the leading cause of community-acquired pneumonia worldwide.
Q9. Clubbing is commonly seen in:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Acute bronchitis
Answer: ✅ C. Bronchiectasis
Explanation: Chronic suppurative lung diseases such as bronchiectasis commonly present with digital clubbing.
Q10. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Physostigmine
Answer: ✅ B. Naloxone
Explanation: Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses respiratory depression.
Q11. Which hepatitis virus has the highest risk of chronic infection?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
Answer: ✅ C. HCV
Explanation: Hepatitis C infection becomes chronic in the majority of untreated patients.
Q12. Which investigation is considered the gold standard for diagnosing liver cirrhosis?
A. Ultrasound
B. CT Scan
C. Liver biopsy
D. X-ray abdomen
Answer: ✅ C. Liver biopsy
Explanation: Liver biopsy remains the gold standard for confirming cirrhosis, though non-invasive methods are increasingly used.
Q13. Which organism is most commonly responsible for peptic ulcer disease?
A. E. coli
B. H. pylori
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: ✅ B. H. pylori
Explanation: Helicobacter pylori is the most common infectious cause of peptic ulcer disease.
Q14. Which hormone is deficient in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Glucagon
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. Growth hormone
Answer: ✅ C. Insulin
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
Q15. The most common acute complication of Type 1 Diabetes is:
A. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Nephropathy
D. Retinopathy
Answer: ✅ B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: DKA is a medical emergency caused by severe insulin deficiency.
Q16. Which thyroid disorder commonly presents with exophthalmos?
A. Hashimoto thyroiditis
B. Graves’ disease
C. Subacute thyroiditis
D. Thyroid carcinoma
Answer: ✅ B. Graves’ disease
Explanation: Graves’ disease is the commonest cause of hyperthyroidism associated with ophthalmopathy.
Q17. Hyperkalemia is a common feature of:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Acute kidney injury
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Diabetes insipidus
Answer: ✅ B. Acute kidney injury
Explanation: Reduced renal potassium excretion in AKI often causes hyperkalemia.
Q18. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly seen in SIADH?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: ✅ B. Hyponatremia
Explanation: Excess ADH causes water retention leading to dilutional hyponatremia.
Q19. The hallmark feature of nephrotic syndrome is:
A. Hematuria
B. Massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)
C. Oliguria only
D. Hypertension only
Answer: ✅ B. Massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)
Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia.
Q20. Which glomerular disease is most common in children?
A. Membranous nephropathy
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Minimal change disease
D. FSGS
Answer: ✅ C. Minimal change disease
Explanation: Minimal change disease is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.
Q21. Which investigation best estimates kidney function?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum bilirubin
C. Estimated GFR (eGFR)
D. Serum albumin
Answer: ✅ C. Estimated GFR (eGFR)
Explanation: eGFR is the preferred measure for assessing renal function and staging CKD.
Q22. The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is:
A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Tuberculosis
D. Kidney stones
Answer: ✅ B. Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of CKD worldwide.
Q23. The first investigation in a suspected acute stroke is:
A. MRI spine
B. CT scan of the brain (Non-contrast)
C. EEG
D. Lumbar puncture
Answer: ✅ B. CT scan of the brain (Non-contrast)
Explanation: A non-contrast CT brain rapidly differentiates ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke.
Q24. Which artery is most commonly involved in ischemic stroke?
A. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Anterior spinal artery
Answer: ✅ B. Middle cerebral artery
Explanation: The MCA is the most frequently affected cerebral artery in ischemic stroke.
Q25. The classic triad of Parkinson’s disease includes:
A. Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
B. Headache, vomiting, fever
C. Ataxia, diplopia, dysarthria
D. Aphasia, hemiplegia, seizures
Answer: ✅ A. Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
Explanation: Resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are the cardinal motor features of Parkinson’s disease.
Q26. The drug of choice for status epilepticus is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam/Lorazepam
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproate
Answer: ✅ B. Diazepam/Lorazepam
Explanation: Intravenous benzodiazepines are the first-line drugs for status epilepticus.
Q27. Which vitamin deficiency commonly causes peripheral neuropathy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: ✅ B. Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
Q28. Which cranial nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Answer: ✅ B. Facial nerve
Explanation: Bell’s palsy is an idiopathic lower motor neuron paralysis of the facial (VII) nerve.
Q29. Which ECG finding is most characteristic of hyperkalemia?
A. Tall peaked T waves
B. Delta waves
C. ST depression only
D. U waves
Answer: ✅ A. Tall peaked T waves
Explanation: Hyperkalemia classically produces tall, tented T waves and, if severe, can progress to widened QRS complexes and arrhythmias.
Q30. Which of the following is the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
A. Gastric carcinoma
B. Esophageal varices
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Crohn’s disease
Answer: ✅ C. Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: Peptic ulcer disease remains the most common cause of upper GI bleeding, followed by variceal bleeding and erosive gastritis.
UPSC CMS Quick Revision Points
- Earliest MI marker: Myoglobin
- Most specific MI marker: Cardiac Troponin I/T
- Rheumatic heart disease: Mitral valve
- Asthma: Reversible airway obstruction
- COPD classification: GOLD
- Common CAP organism: Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Peptic ulcer: Helicobacter pylori
- Type 1 DM emergency: Diabetic ketoacidosis
- Nephrotic syndrome: Proteinuria >3.5 g/day
- Most common CKD cause: Diabetes mellitus
- First test in acute stroke: Non-contrast CT brain
- Status epilepticus: IV Lorazepam/Diazepam
- Bell’s palsy: Facial nerve (CN VII)
- Hyperkalemia ECG: Tall peaked T waves
General Medicine (Infectious Diseases, Emergency Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Hematology, Poisoning & Tropical Medicine)
Q1. Which organism is the most common cause of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium avium
D. Nocardia asteroides
✅ Answer: B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the primary causative organism of pulmonary TB.
Q2. The GeneXpert (CBNAAT) test is primarily used for:
A. Malaria diagnosis
B. Rapid detection of TB and Rifampicin resistance
C. Dengue diagnosis
D. HIV viral load
✅ Answer: B. Rapid detection of TB and Rifampicin resistance
Explanation: GeneXpert detects M. tuberculosis DNA and rifampicin resistance within a few hours.
Q3. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated Plasmodium vivax malaria?
A. Chloroquine followed by Primaquine
B. Artesunate only
C. Quinine only
D. Doxycycline only
✅ Answer: A. Chloroquine followed by Primaquine
Explanation: Chloroquine clears blood-stage parasites, while primaquine eradicates dormant liver hypnozoites (after ruling out G6PD deficiency).
Q4. Severe falciparum malaria is best treated with:
A. Oral Chloroquine
B. Oral Primaquine
C. Intravenous Artesunate
D. Oral Azithromycin
✅ Answer: C. Intravenous Artesunate
Explanation: IV artesunate is the WHO-recommended treatment for severe malaria.
Q5. Which mosquito transmits dengue fever?
A. Anopheles
B. Culex
C. Aedes aegypti
D. Mansonia
✅ Answer: C. Aedes aegypti
Explanation: Aedes aegypti transmits dengue, chikungunya, Zika, and yellow fever viruses.
Q6. A positive NS1 antigen test is most useful during:
A. First 5 days of dengue illness
B. After 3 weeks
C. Recovery phase only
D. Chronic dengue
✅ Answer: A. First 5 days of dengue illness
Explanation: NS1 antigen is an early marker useful before antibodies become detectable.
Q7. Which laboratory finding is commonly seen in dengue hemorrhagic fever?
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Thrombocytopenia with raised hematocrit
C. Polycythemia only
D. Leukocytosis only
✅ Answer: B. Thrombocytopenia with raised hematocrit
Explanation: Plasma leakage causes hemoconcentration, while platelet counts fall significantly.
Q8. Hydrophobia is the characteristic feature of:
A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Meningitis
✅ Answer: B. Rabies
Explanation: Painful pharyngeal spasms triggered by water are classical for rabies.
Q9. Which vaccine is indicated after a category III animal bite?
A. BCG
B. Rabies vaccine with Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)
C. OPV
D. Hepatitis B vaccine only
✅ Answer: B. Rabies vaccine with Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)
Explanation: Category III exposure requires wound care, RIG, and complete anti-rabies vaccination.
Q10. Which disease commonly presents with an eschar?
A. Measles
B. Scrub typhus
C. Chickenpox
D. Rubella
✅ Answer: B. Scrub typhus
Explanation: A painless black eschar at the bite site is a classic clue for scrub typhus.
Q11. The antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine with Pralidoxime
C. Flumazenil
D. Vitamin K
✅ Answer: B. Atropine with Pralidoxime
Explanation: Atropine reverses muscarinic effects, while pralidoxime reactivates acetylcholinesterase if given early.
Q12. Pinpoint pupils are most commonly seen in:
A. Atropine poisoning
B. Opioid poisoning
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Methanol poisoning
✅ Answer: B. Opioid poisoning
Explanation: The classic triad is miosis, respiratory depression, and CNS depression.
Q13. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is:
A. Atropine
B. N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
C. Naloxone
D. Pralidoxime
✅ Answer: B. N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
Explanation: NAC replenishes glutathione stores and prevents hepatic injury.
Q14. Which poisoning characteristically causes metabolic acidosis with visual disturbances?
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Iron poisoning
✅ Answer: A. Methanol poisoning
Explanation: Methanol metabolites damage the optic nerve, causing blurred vision or blindness.
Q15. Cherry-red discoloration of skin is classically associated with:
A. Cyanide poisoning
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Organophosphate poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
✅ Answer: B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation: Carboxyhemoglobin imparts a characteristic cherry-red appearance.
Q16. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses:
A. Liver function
B. Level of consciousness
C. Renal function
D. Cardiac function
✅ Answer: B. Level of consciousness
Explanation: GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Q17. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
A. Asystole
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. First-degree AV block
✅ Answer: B. Ventricular fibrillation
Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation.
Q18. The first priority in trauma management according to ATLS is:
A. Fracture stabilization
B. Airway with cervical spine protection
C. CT scan
D. Pain relief
✅ Answer: B. Airway with cervical spine protection
Explanation: Airway assessment and cervical spine protection are the first steps in the ABCDE approach.
Q19. Which skin disease shows a positive Nikolsky sign?
A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Vitiligo
D. Tinea corporis
✅ Answer: B. Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation: Gentle pressure causes epidermal separation in pemphigus vulgaris.
Q20. Which organism commonly causes impetigo?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus
B. Candida albicans
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. HSV-1
✅ Answer: A. Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Both organisms commonly cause superficial bacterial skin infection.
Q21. The most common type of psoriasis is:
A. Guttate psoriasis
B. Plaque psoriasis
C. Pustular psoriasis
D. Erythrodermic psoriasis
✅ Answer: B. Plaque psoriasis
Explanation: Chronic plaque psoriasis accounts for the majority of cases.
Q22. Which psychiatric disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks?
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. OCD
✅ Answer: B. Panic disorder
Explanation: Recurrent unexpected panic attacks define panic disorder.
Q23. First-line pharmacotherapy for major depressive disorder includes:
A. SSRIs
B. Haloperidol
C. Lithium
D. Diazepam alone
✅ Answer: A. SSRIs
Explanation: SSRIs are preferred because of good efficacy and safety.
Q24. Delusions and hallucinations are characteristic features of:
A. Dementia
B. Schizophrenia
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Somatic symptom disorder
✅ Answer: B. Schizophrenia
Explanation: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
Q25. Which blood disorder is characterized by Reed–Sternberg cells?
A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Acute leukemia
✅ Answer: B. Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation: Reed–Sternberg cells are pathognomonic for Hodgkin lymphoma.
Q26. Iron deficiency anemia typically presents with:
A. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
C. Normocytic anemia only
D. Pancytopenia
✅ Answer: B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Explanation: Iron deficiency reduces hemoglobin synthesis, producing small, pale RBCs.
Q27. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes:
A. Microcytic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia only
D. Aplastic anemia
✅ Answer: B. Megaloblastic anemia
Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs DNA synthesis, producing macrocytic megaloblastic anemia.
Q28. The most common cause of anaphylactic shock is:
A. Severe dehydration
B. IgE-mediated allergic reaction
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypothyroidism
✅ Answer: B. IgE-mediated allergic reaction
Explanation: Rapid mast-cell degranulation causes hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria.
Q29. Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through:
A. Mosquito bite
B. Contact with urine of infected animals
C. Tick bite
D. Airborne droplets
✅ Answer: B. Contact with urine of infected animals
Explanation: Humans acquire infection through water or soil contaminated with infected animal urine.
Q30. Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is transmitted by:
A. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse fly
C. Blackfly
D. Housefly
✅ Answer: A. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
Explanation: Visceral leishmaniasis is caused by Leishmania donovani and transmitted by female sandflies.
UPSC CMS 2026 Quick Revision Points
- Pulmonary TB: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Rapid TB diagnosis: GeneXpert (CBNAAT)
- Severe malaria: IV Artesunate
- Dengue vector: Aedes aegypti
- Early dengue marker: NS1 Antigen
- Scrub typhus clue: Eschar
- Organophosphate poisoning: Atropine + Pralidoxime
- Paracetamol antidote: N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
- Opioid antidote: Naloxone
- Methanol poisoning: Visual loss + metabolic acidosis
- Carbon monoxide poisoning: Cherry-red skin
- Shockable rhythm: Ventricular fibrillation
- ATLS priority: Airway with cervical spine protection
- Positive Nikolsky sign: Pemphigus vulgaris
- First-line antidepressants: SSRIs
- Schizophrenia: Hallucinations + Delusions
- Iron deficiency anemia: Microcytic hypochromic
- Vitamin B12 deficiency: Megaloblastic anemia
- Leptospirosis: Animal urine exposure
- Kala-azar vector: Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
Paediatrics (Newborn Care, Growth & Development, Immunization, Nutrition, Pediatric Emergencies & National Child Health Programmes)
Newborn Care
Q1. A normal full-term newborn should ideally receive the first breastfeed within:
A. 6 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour of birth
D. 24 hours
✅ Answer: C. 1 hour of birth
Explanation: Early initiation of breastfeeding within the first hour reduces neonatal mortality and improves bonding.
Q2. The APGAR score is assessed at:
A. 5 and 15 minutes only
B. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
C. Immediately after delivery only
D. 10 minutes only
✅ Answer: B. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
Explanation: APGAR evaluates Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration at 1 and 5 minutes.
Q3. Which vitamin is routinely administered to newborns immediately after birth?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
✅ Answer: C. Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K prevents Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (VKDB) in newborns.
Q4. A newborn weighing less than ______ is classified as Low Birth Weight (LBW).
A. 3000 g
B. 2800 g
C. 2500 g
D. 2000 g
✅ Answer: C. 2500 g
Explanation: WHO defines Low Birth Weight as birth weight below 2500 g.
Q5. Which is the most effective intervention to prevent neonatal hypothermia?
A. Delayed bathing only
B. Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) and skin-to-skin contact
C. IV fluids
D. Antibiotics
✅ Answer: B. Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) and skin-to-skin contact
Explanation: KMC maintains body temperature, promotes breastfeeding, and improves survival.
Growth & Development
Q6. Social smile normally appears at:
A. Birth
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
✅ Answer: B. 2 months
Explanation: Social smile is one of the earliest developmental milestones.
Q7. A child usually sits without support by:
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
✅ Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: Independent sitting generally develops by 6 months.
Q8. Walking without support is usually achieved by:
A. 9 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
✅ Answer: B. 12 months
Explanation: Most children walk independently around their first birthday.
Q9. Birth weight generally doubles by:
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
✅ Answer: B. 5 months
Explanation: Birth weight doubles by 5 months and triples by one year.
Q10. The anterior fontanelle normally closes by:
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 30 months
✅ Answer: C. 18 months
Explanation: Normal closure occurs between 12–18 months.
Immunization
Q11. BCG vaccine protects primarily against:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis in adults
B. Severe childhood tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Typhoid
✅ Answer: B. Severe childhood tuberculosis
Explanation: BCG mainly protects against TB meningitis and miliary TB.
Q12. Which vaccine is administered at birth under India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)?
A. Measles-Rubella only
B. BCG, OPV-0 and Hepatitis B Birth Dose
C. Pentavalent vaccine
D. IPV
✅ Answer: B. BCG, OPV-0 and Hepatitis B Birth Dose
Explanation: These are the routine vaccines recommended at birth.
Q13. Pentavalent vaccine protects against:
A. Four diseases
B. Five diseases
C. Six diseases
D. Seven diseases
✅ Answer: B. Five diseases
Explanation: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Hib.
Q14. Vitamin A supplementation under the National Programme starts at:
A. Birth
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 2 years
✅ Answer: C. 9 months
Explanation: The first dose is given with the MR vaccine at 9 months.
Q15. Which vaccine leaves a characteristic scar?
A. OPV
B. BCG
C. Pentavalent
D. IPV
✅ Answer: B. BCG
Explanation: A small scar over the left upper arm is a normal response to BCG vaccination.
Nutrition
Q16. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended up to:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
✅ Answer: C. 6 months
Explanation: WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months.
Q17. Complementary feeding should ideally begin at:
A. Birth
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
✅ Answer: C. 6 months
Explanation: Complementary foods should be introduced while continuing breastfeeding.
Q18. Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is diagnosed when MUAC is:
A. <13.5 cm
B. <12.5 cm
C. <11.5 cm
D. <10 cm
✅ Answer: C. <11.5 cm
Explanation: MUAC below 11.5 cm in children aged 6–59 months indicates SAM.
Q19. Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
✅ Answer: B. Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to defective bone mineralization.
Q20. Iron deficiency is the most common cause of:
A. Macrocytic anemia
B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
✅ Answer: B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Explanation: Iron deficiency impairs hemoglobin synthesis.
Pediatric Emergencies
Q21. The first drug used in pediatric anaphylaxis is:
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Intramuscular Adrenaline
D. Salbutamol
✅ Answer: C. Intramuscular Adrenaline
Explanation: IM adrenaline is the life-saving first-line treatment.
Q22. The most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years is:
A. Brain tumor
B. Febrile seizure
C. Epilepsy
D. Meningitis
✅ Answer: B. Febrile seizure
Explanation: Febrile seizures are the commonest seizures in this age group.
Q23. A child with severe dehydration should receive:
A. ORS only
B. Intravenous fluids immediately (Plan C)
C. Antibiotics only
D. Fruit juice
✅ Answer: B. Intravenous fluids immediately (Plan C)
Explanation: Severe dehydration requires rapid IV fluid replacement.
Q24. Which electrolyte disturbance is most commonly responsible for neonatal seizures?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
✅ Answer: B. Hypocalcemia
Explanation: Neonatal hypocalcemia is an important metabolic cause of seizures.
Q25. The drug of choice for status epilepticus in children is:
A. Diazepam/Lorazepam
B. Aspirin
C. Phenytoin orally
D. Paracetamol
✅ Answer: A. Diazepam/Lorazepam
Explanation: IV benzodiazepines are the recommended first-line treatment.
National Child Health Programmes
Q26. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) focuses on:
A. Family planning
B. Early identification of 4Ds in children
C. Tuberculosis control
D. Maternal mortality
✅ Answer: B. Early identification of 4Ds in children
Explanation: RBSK screens for Defects at birth, Diseases, Deficiencies, and Developmental delays including disabilities.
Q27. Mission Indradhanush aims to:
A. Reduce maternal mortality only
B. Increase full immunization coverage
C. Eliminate malaria
D. Promote breastfeeding
✅ Answer: B. Increase full immunization coverage
Explanation: Mission Indradhanush targets children and pregnant women who missed routine vaccination.
Q28. The Home-Based Newborn Care (HBNC) programme is delivered mainly by:
A. Pediatricians
B. ANMs only
C. ASHA workers
D. Pharmacists
✅ Answer: C. ASHA workers
Explanation: ASHAs conduct scheduled home visits to monitor newborn health.
Q29. Which programme aims to reduce childhood mortality through integrated management of common illnesses?
A. NPCDCS
B. IMNCI
C. NACP
D. NVBDCP
✅ Answer: B. IMNCI
Explanation: Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) improves management of major childhood diseases.
Q30. ORS and Zinc are recommended together for the treatment of:
A. Pneumonia
B. Acute diarrhea
C. Malaria
D. Measles
✅ Answer: B. Acute diarrhea
Explanation: Zinc supplementation for 14 days along with ORS reduces the severity, duration, and recurrence of diarrhea.
UPSC CMS 2026 Quick Revision (Paediatrics)
- First breastfeeding: Within 1 hour of birth
- APGAR assessment: 1 & 5 minutes
- Vitamin given at birth: Vitamin K
- Low Birth Weight: <2500 g
- Social smile: 2 months
- Sits without support: 6 months
- Walks independently: 12 months
- Birth weight doubles: 5 months
- Anterior fontanelle closes: 12–18 months
- Birth vaccines: BCG + OPV-0 + Hepatitis B Birth Dose
- Exclusive breastfeeding: 6 months
- Complementary feeding: Starts at 6 months
- SAM (MUAC): <11.5 cm
- First-line treatment of anaphylaxis: IM Adrenaline
- Most common childhood seizure: Febrile seizure
- RBSK: 4Ds (Defects, Diseases, Deficiencies, Developmental Delays)
- Mission Indradhanush: Improve routine immunization coverage
- HBNC: ASHA-led home visits
- Acute diarrhea: ORS + Zinc for 14 days
Surgery (General Surgery, Trauma, Orthopaedics, ENT, Ophthalmology, Anaesthesia & Urology)
General Surgery
Q1. The most common type of inguinal hernia is:
A. Femoral hernia
B. Direct inguinal hernia
C. Indirect inguinal hernia
D. Obturator hernia
✅ Answer: C. Indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation: Indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type and passes through the deep inguinal ring.
Q2. The gold standard treatment for symptomatic gallstones is:
A. ERCP
B. Open cholecystectomy
C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D. Medical therapy only
✅ Answer: C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice for symptomatic cholelithiasis.
Q3. McBurney’s point tenderness is classically seen in:
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Diverticulitis
✅ Answer: B. Acute appendicitis
Explanation: McBurney’s point lies one-third of the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus and is tender in appendicitis.
Q4. Which is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in adults?
A. Intussusception
B. Hernia
C. Post-operative adhesions
D. Volvulus
✅ Answer: C. Post-operative adhesions
Explanation: Adhesions are the leading cause of small bowel obstruction in adults.
Q5. The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal perforation is:
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
✅ Answer: C. Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: Perforated peptic ulcer is the commonest cause of upper GI perforation.
Q6. Which clinical sign is characteristic of acute pancreatitis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Grey Turner’s sign
C. Rovsing’s sign
D. Tinel’s sign
✅ Answer: B. Grey Turner’s sign
Explanation: Grey Turner’s sign (flank ecchymosis) suggests retroperitoneal hemorrhage in severe pancreatitis.
Trauma
Q7. According to ATLS, the first priority in trauma management is:
A. Control fractures
B. Airway with cervical spine protection
C. CT scan
D. Pain management
✅ Answer: B. Airway with cervical spine protection
Explanation: Trauma management begins with the ABCDE approach; airway is always the first priority.
Q8. Which shock is most common following major trauma?
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
✅ Answer: C. Hypovolemic shock
Explanation: Blood loss is the most frequent cause of shock after trauma.
Q9. FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma) is mainly used to detect:
A. Skull fractures
B. Intraperitoneal free fluid
C. Lung fibrosis
D. Kidney stones
✅ Answer: B. Intraperitoneal free fluid
Explanation: FAST rapidly identifies internal bleeding in trauma patients.
Q10. The definitive management of tension pneumothorax is:
A. Oxygen only
B. Chest physiotherapy
C. Needle decompression followed by intercostal chest drain
D. Antibiotics
✅ Answer: C. Needle decompression followed by intercostal chest drain
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate decompression.
Orthopaedics
Q11. The most common fracture in elderly patients due to osteoporosis is:
A. Clavicle fracture
B. Neck of femur fracture
C. Humerus fracture
D. Patella fracture
✅ Answer: B. Neck of femur fracture
Explanation: Osteoporotic elderly patients commonly sustain fractures of the femoral neck after minor falls.
Q12. Colles’ fracture involves:
A. Proximal ulna
B. Distal radius
C. Distal humerus
D. Scaphoid
✅ Answer: B. Distal radius
Explanation: Colles’ fracture is an extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement.
Q13. Which nerve is most commonly injured in fracture shaft of humerus?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve
✅ Answer: C. Radial nerve
Explanation: The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove and is commonly injured.
Q14. The most common site of osteomyelitis in children is:
A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Metaphysis of long bones
D. Flat bones
✅ Answer: C. Metaphysis of long bones
Explanation: Rich blood supply predisposes the metaphysis to infection.
Q15. Compartment syndrome is primarily caused by:
A. Venous thrombosis
B. Increased pressure within a closed fascial compartment
C. Nerve injury alone
D. Infection only
✅ Answer: B. Increased pressure within a closed fascial compartment
Explanation: Raised compartment pressure compromises blood flow and nerve function.
ENT
Q16. The most common cause of epistaxis is bleeding from:
A. Woodruff’s plexus
B. Kiesselbach’s plexus (Little’s area)
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Maxillary sinus
✅ Answer: B. Kiesselbach’s plexus (Little’s area)
Explanation: Little’s area is the commonest site of anterior epistaxis.
Q17. Which nerve supplies all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid?
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
✅ Answer: B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation: All intrinsic laryngeal muscles except cricothyroid are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Q18. The most common organism causing acute otitis media is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Candida albicans
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
✅ Answer: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Pneumococcus remains the leading cause of acute otitis media.
Q19. Stridor usually indicates obstruction of the:
A. Lower airway
B. Upper airway
C. Pleural cavity
D. Alveoli
✅ Answer: B. Upper airway
Explanation: Inspiratory stridor suggests upper airway obstruction.
Ophthalmology
Q20. The most common cause of irreversible blindness worldwide is:
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Trachoma
✅ Answer: B. Glaucoma
Explanation: Glaucoma is the leading cause of irreversible blindness, whereas cataract is the leading cause of reversible blindness.
Q21. Sudden painful loss of vision with a mid-dilated fixed pupil suggests:
A. Cataract
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Retinal detachment
D. Conjunctivitis
✅ Answer: B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation: This is an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate treatment.
Q22. The most common cause of cataract is:
A. Trauma
B. Diabetes
C. Aging (Senile cataract)
D. Steroids
✅ Answer: C. Aging (Senile cataract)
Explanation: Age-related cataract is the commonest type.
Q23. Which vitamin deficiency causes xerophthalmia?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
✅ Answer: A. Vitamin A
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia.
Anaesthesia
Q24. The ASA Physical Status Classification is used to assess:
A. Airway anatomy only
B. Pre-operative physical fitness
C. Renal function
D. Pain severity
✅ Answer: B. Pre-operative physical fitness
Explanation: ASA grading predicts perioperative risk.
Q25. Which inhalational anaesthetic has the fastest induction and recovery?
A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether
✅ Answer: C. Sevoflurane
Explanation: Sevoflurane has a low blood-gas solubility, allowing rapid induction and recovery.
Q26. Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly treated with:
A. Atropine
B. Dantrolene
C. Adrenaline
D. Naloxone
✅ Answer: B. Dantrolene
Explanation: Dantrolene is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia.
Urology
Q27. The most common site of ureteric stone impaction is:
A. Pelvi-ureteric junction
B. Mid ureter
C. Vesicoureteric junction
D. Urethra
✅ Answer: C. Vesicoureteric junction
Explanation: The vesicoureteric junction is the narrowest part of the ureter and a common site of stone impaction.
Q28. Painless hematuria should always raise suspicion of:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Renal colic
D. Acute prostatitis
✅ Answer: B. Bladder carcinoma
Explanation: Painless gross hematuria is a red-flag symptom for urinary tract malignancy.
Q29. The most common type of renal stone is:
A. Uric acid stone
B. Calcium oxalate stone
C. Struvite stone
D. Cystine stone
✅ Answer: B. Calcium oxalate stone
Explanation: Calcium oxalate stones account for approximately 70–80% of urinary calculi.
Q30. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) most commonly affects which part of the prostate?
A. Peripheral zone
B. Central zone
C. Transitional zone
D. Anterior fibromuscular stroma
✅ Answer: C. Transitional zone
Explanation: BPH originates in the transitional zone, while prostate carcinoma most commonly arises in the peripheral zone.
UPSC CMS 2026 Quick Revision (Surgery)
- Most common inguinal hernia: Indirect
- Gold standard for symptomatic gallstones: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
- Appendicitis: McBurney’s point tenderness
- Most common adult intestinal obstruction: Post-operative adhesions
- ATLS first step: Airway + cervical spine protection
- Trauma shock: Hypovolemic shock
- FAST scan: Detects free intraperitoneal fluid
- Tension pneumothorax: Needle decompression → Chest tube
- Neck of femur fracture: Common osteoporotic fracture
- Colles’ fracture: Distal radius
- Humeral shaft fracture nerve injury: Radial nerve
- Pediatric osteomyelitis: Metaphysis
- Epistaxis: Kiesselbach’s plexus
- Acute otitis media: Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Upper airway obstruction: Stridor
- Irreversible blindness: Glaucoma
- Acute painful red eye: Angle-closure glaucoma
- Xerophthalmia: Vitamin A deficiency
- Malignant hyperthermia antidote: Dantrolene
- Most common renal stone: Calcium oxalate
- Painless hematuria: Suspect bladder carcinoma
- BPH origin: Transitional zone
Gynaecology & Obstetrics (Antenatal Care, Labour, Postnatal Care, High-Risk Pregnancy, Family Planning & Gynaecological Disorders)
Antenatal Care
Q1. The normal duration of pregnancy calculated from the first day of the Last Menstrual Period (LMP) is:
A. 266 days
B. 270 days
C. 280 days
D. 300 days
✅ Answer: C. 280 days
Explanation: Pregnancy lasts approximately 280 days (40 weeks) from the first day of the LMP.
Q2. Folic acid supplementation before conception primarily prevents:
A. Congenital heart disease
B. Neural tube defects
C. Cleft lip
D. Down syndrome
✅ Answer: B. Neural tube defects
Explanation: Periconceptional folic acid significantly reduces neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
Q3. Which investigation is considered the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes?
A. Fasting Blood Sugar
B. HbA1c
C. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
D. Random Blood Sugar
✅ Answer: C. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
Explanation: OGTT is the standard test recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes mellitus.
Q4. The most common cause of antepartum hemorrhage is:
A. Uterine rupture
B. Placenta previa
C. Placental abruption
D. Cervical polyp
✅ Answer: B. Placenta previa
Explanation: Placenta previa is the commonest cause of painless antepartum hemorrhage.
Q5. The first clinical evidence of pregnancy is:
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Quickening
C. Fetal heart sound
D. Amenorrhea
✅ Answer: D. Amenorrhea
Explanation: Amenorrhea is usually the earliest clinical indication of pregnancy.
Q6. Fetal heart sounds are best heard with a Doppler device from approximately:
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10–12 weeks
D. 20 weeks
✅ Answer: C. 10–12 weeks
Explanation: Doppler ultrasound can detect fetal heart activity by around 10–12 weeks.
Labour
Q7. The first stage of labour extends from:
A. Onset of labour to full cervical dilatation
B. Full dilatation to delivery of baby
C. Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta
D. Delivery of placenta to 24 hours postpartum
✅ Answer: A. Onset of labour to full cervical dilatation
Explanation: The first stage ends when the cervix reaches 10 cm dilatation.
Q8. Full cervical dilatation during labour is:
A. 6 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 12 cm
✅ Answer: C. 10 cm
Explanation: Complete cervical dilatation is 10 cm.
Q9. The most common fetal presentation during normal labour is:
A. Breech
B. Shoulder
C. Vertex (Occipito-anterior)
D. Face presentation
✅ Answer: C. Vertex (Occipito-anterior)
Explanation: Vertex presentation, especially occipito-anterior, is the most favorable for vaginal delivery.
Q10. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is:
A. Retained placenta
B. Uterine atony
C. Cervical tear
D. Coagulation disorder
✅ Answer: B. Uterine atony
Explanation: Uterine atony accounts for nearly 70–80% of postpartum hemorrhage cases.
Q11. Which uterotonic is the first-line drug for prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Misoprostol
B. Oxytocin
C. Ergometrine
D. Dinoprostone
✅ Answer: B. Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is the preferred first-line uterotonic for active management of the third stage of labour.
Q12. The partograph is mainly used to:
A. Diagnose fetal anomalies
B. Monitor progress of labour
C. Estimate fetal weight
D. Detect anemia
✅ Answer: B. Monitor progress of labour
Explanation: The partograph helps detect prolonged or obstructed labour early.
Postnatal Care
Q13. The puerperium lasts approximately:
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks (42 days)
D. 3 months
✅ Answer: C. 6 weeks (42 days)
Explanation: The puerperium is the period during which the reproductive organs return to the non-pregnant state.
Q14. Breastfeeding should ideally be initiated within:
A. 6 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour after birth
D. 24 hours
✅ Answer: C. 1 hour after birth
Explanation: Early breastfeeding improves neonatal survival and supports successful lactation.
Q15. The most common cause of puerperal sepsis is:
A. Viral infection
B. Ascending bacterial infection
C. Tuberculosis
D. Malaria
✅ Answer: B. Ascending bacterial infection
Explanation: Bacteria ascending from the genital tract commonly cause puerperal sepsis.
Q16. Which hormone is mainly responsible for milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
A. Prolactin
B. Estrogen
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone
✅ Answer: C. Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells leading to milk ejection, while prolactin stimulates milk production.
High-Risk Pregnancy
Q17. The definitive treatment for eclampsia is:
A. Antibiotics
B. Immediate delivery after maternal stabilization
C. Blood transfusion only
D. Bed rest only
✅ Answer: B. Immediate delivery after maternal stabilization
Explanation: Stabilization with magnesium sulfate and antihypertensives is followed by delivery, the definitive treatment.
Q18. The drug of choice to prevent and control seizures in eclampsia is:
A. Diazepam
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Phenytoin
D. Sodium valproate
✅ Answer: B. Magnesium sulfate
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is superior to other anticonvulsants in eclampsia.
Q19. Which of the following is a severe feature of preeclampsia?
A. Mild edema only
B. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg
C. Weight gain alone
D. Morning sickness
✅ Answer: B. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg
Explanation: Severe hypertension is one of the diagnostic criteria for severe preeclampsia.
Q20. Which condition commonly causes painless vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Cervical incompetence
✅ Answer: B. Placenta previa
Explanation: Placenta previa classically presents with painless bleeding in the third trimester.
Q21. Abruptio placentae typically presents with:
A. Painless bleeding with soft uterus
B. Painful bleeding with tender uterus
C. Fever only
D. Polyhydramnios
✅ Answer: B. Painful bleeding with tender uterus
Explanation: Placental abruption usually causes abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.
Family Planning
Q22. Copper-T IUCD primarily acts by:
A. Suppressing ovulation
B. Preventing fertilization
C. Destroying ovarian follicles
D. Blocking pituitary hormones
✅ Answer: B. Preventing fertilization
Explanation: Copper ions create a spermicidal environment that interferes with sperm function and fertilization.
Q23. Which contraceptive method also provides protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A. Copper-T
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Male condom
D. Tubectomy
✅ Answer: C. Male condom
Explanation: Condoms are the only contraceptive method that also reduces STI transmission.
Q24. Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) is effective only if the infant is younger than:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
✅ Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: LAM is effective up to six months when exclusive breastfeeding continues and menstruation has not resumed.
Q25. The permanent method of contraception in males is:
A. Vasectomy
B. Circumcision
C. Orchidopexy
D. Orchidectomy
✅ Answer: A. Vasectomy
Explanation: Vasectomy involves ligation of the vas deferens to achieve permanent contraception.
Gynaecological Disorders
Q26. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescents is:
A. Cervical cancer
B. Anovulatory cycles
C. Fibroid uterus
D. Endometrial carcinoma
✅ Answer: B. Anovulatory cycles
Explanation: Immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis commonly causes anovulatory bleeding.
Q27. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection is strongly associated with:
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Vulval cyst
✅ Answer: B. Cervical cancer
Explanation: Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types (especially 16 and 18) is the major cause of cervical cancer.
Q28. The screening test most commonly used for cervical cancer is:
A. Mammography
B. Pap smear
C. CA-125
D. Hysteroscopy
✅ Answer: B. Pap smear
Explanation: The Pap smear detects precancerous cervical lesions and reduces cervical cancer mortality.
Q29. The most common benign tumor of the uterus is:
A. Adenomyosis
B. Leiomyoma (Fibroid)
C. Endometrial polyp
D. Ovarian cyst
✅ Answer: B. Leiomyoma (Fibroid)
Explanation: Uterine fibroids are the most common benign tumors in women of reproductive age.
Q30. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with:
A. Amenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
B. Severe vaginal bleeding only
C. Early menopause
D. Precocious puberty
✅ Answer: A. Amenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
Explanation: PCOS is characterized by ovulatory dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries.
UPSC CMS 2026 Quick Revision (Gynaecology & Obstetrics)
- Normal pregnancy: 40 weeks (280 days)
- Folic acid: Prevents Neural Tube Defects (NTDs)
- GDM diagnosis: OGTT
- Painless APH: Placenta previa
- Painful APH: Abruptio placentae
- First stage of labour: Onset of labour → 10 cm cervical dilatation
- Most common fetal presentation: Vertex (Occipito-anterior)
- Most common cause of PPH: Uterine atony
- First-line uterotonic: Oxytocin
- Partograph: Monitors labour progress
- Puerperium: 6 weeks (42 days)
- Breastfeeding: Start within 1 hour
- Milk production: Prolactin
- Milk ejection: Oxytocin
- Drug of choice in eclampsia: Magnesium sulfate
- Definitive treatment of eclampsia: Delivery after maternal stabilization
- Copper-T: Prevents fertilization
- STI protection: Male condom
- LAM effective: Up to 6 months
- Permanent male contraception: Vasectomy
- Cervical cancer screening: Pap smear
- Most common uterine benign tumor: Leiomyoma (Fibroid)
- PCOS: Amenorrhea + Obesity + Hirsutism
(Epidemiology, Biostatistics, National Health Programmes, Vaccines, Nutrition, Environmental & Occupational Health)
Epidemiology
Q1. Epidemiology is best defined as the study of:
A. Individual patient treatment
B. Distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations
C. Drug development only
D. Hospital administration
✅ Answer: B. Distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations
Explanation: Epidemiology studies the frequency, distribution, and determinants of diseases in populations and applies this knowledge for disease prevention and control.
Q2. Incidence measures:
A. Total number of existing cases
B. Number of new cases occurring in a specified period
C. Mortality rate only
D. Hospital admissions
✅ Answer: B. Number of new cases occurring in a specified period
Explanation: Incidence reflects the risk of developing a disease over time.
Q3. Prevalence refers to:
A. New cases only
B. Existing cases (new + old) at a given time or period
C. Death rate only
D. Birth rate
✅ Answer: B. Existing cases (new + old) at a given time or period
Explanation: Prevalence measures the disease burden in a population.
Q4. Which study design is best for investigating a rare disease?
A. Cohort study
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Case-control study
D. Cross-sectional study
✅ Answer: C. Case-control study
Explanation: Case-control studies are efficient for studying rare diseases because they begin with affected individuals.
Q5. Which epidemiological study provides the strongest evidence for causality?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case report
C. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
D. Ecological study
✅ Answer: C. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
Explanation: Randomization minimizes bias and confounding.
Q6. Relative Risk (RR) is mainly calculated in:
A. Case-control studies
B. Cohort studies
C. Case reports
D. Ecological studies
✅ Answer: B. Cohort studies
Explanation: RR compares disease incidence in exposed versus unexposed groups.
Biostatistics
Q7. The arithmetic mean is:
A. Most frequent value
B. Middle value
C. Sum of observations divided by number of observations
D. Range
✅ Answer: C. Sum of observations divided by number of observations
Explanation: Mean is the most commonly used measure of central tendency.
Q8. Which measure is least affected by extreme values?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Standard deviation
D. Variance
✅ Answer: B. Median
Explanation: Median is preferred in skewed distributions because it is resistant to outliers.
Q9. Standard deviation measures:
A. Central tendency
B. Dispersion of observations around the mean
C. Correlation only
D. Incidence
✅ Answer: B. Dispersion of observations around the mean
Explanation: A larger standard deviation indicates greater variability.
Q10. A p-value less than 0.05 generally indicates:
A. No statistical significance
B. Statistical significance
C. High prevalence
D. Poor study quality
✅ Answer: B. Statistical significance
Explanation: A p-value <0.05 suggests the observed result is unlikely due to chance alone.
National Health Programmes
Q11. Ayushman Bharat includes:
A. PM-JAY and Health & Wellness Centres
B. Pulse Polio Programme
C. National TB Elimination Programme only
D. Janani Suraksha Yojana only
✅ Answer: A. PM-JAY and Health & Wellness Centres
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat has two major components: PM-JAY and Health & Wellness Centres.
Q12. The goal of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) is to eliminate TB in India by:
A. 2025
B. 2030
C. 2035
D. 2040
✅ Answer: A. 2025
Explanation: India has set a national target to eliminate TB by 2025.
Q13. Mission Indradhanush primarily aims to:
A. Eliminate malaria
B. Improve routine immunization coverage
C. Reduce maternal mortality only
D. Prevent HIV
✅ Answer: B. Improve routine immunization coverage
Explanation: It targets children and pregnant women who missed routine vaccinations.
Q14. The National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) focuses on:
A. Tuberculosis
B. HIV/AIDS prevention and control
C. Malaria
D. Leprosy
✅ Answer: B. HIV/AIDS prevention and control
Explanation: NACP works to reduce HIV transmission and improve care.
Q15. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) screens children for:
A. Heart diseases only
B. 4Ds (Defects, Diseases, Deficiencies, Developmental Delays)
C. Diabetes only
D. Cancer only
✅ Answer: B. 4Ds (Defects, Diseases, Deficiencies, Developmental Delays)
Explanation: RBSK provides early screening and intervention for children.
Vaccines
Q16. BCG vaccine is administered:
A. Intramuscularly
B. Intradermally
C. Intravenously
D. Subcutaneously
✅ Answer: B. Intradermally
Explanation: BCG is given intradermally over the left upper arm.
Q17. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is a:
A. Killed vaccine
B. Live attenuated vaccine
C. Toxoid vaccine
D. Recombinant vaccine
✅ Answer: B. Live attenuated vaccine
Explanation: OPV contains live attenuated poliovirus strains.
Q18. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Tetanus-diphtheria (Td)
B. Influenza (Inactivated)
C. MMR vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
✅ Answer: C. MMR vaccine
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is generally contraindicated during pregnancy.
Q19. Vaccine efficacy is best assessed by:
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Ecological study
D. Case report
✅ Answer: B. Randomized controlled trial
Explanation: RCTs provide the strongest evidence for vaccine efficacy before widespread use.
Q20. Herd immunity mainly protects:
A. Vaccinated individuals only
B. Individuals who cannot be vaccinated
C. Healthcare workers only
D. Elderly people only
✅ Answer: B. Individuals who cannot be vaccinated
Explanation: High vaccination coverage reduces disease transmission, indirectly protecting susceptible individuals.
Nutrition
Q21. The richest natural source of Vitamin C is:
A. Apple
B. Amla (Indian gooseberry)
C. Rice
D. Milk
✅ Answer: B. Amla (Indian gooseberry)
Explanation: Amla is an excellent natural source of Vitamin C.
Q22. Night blindness is caused by deficiency of:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin K
✅ Answer: B. Vitamin A
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency first manifests as night blindness.
Q23. Iodine deficiency commonly causes:
A. Scurvy
B. Goitre
C. Pellagra
D. Beriberi
✅ Answer: B. Goitre
Explanation: Iodine deficiency impairs thyroid hormone synthesis, leading to goitre.
Q24. Kwashiorkor is primarily caused by deficiency of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Protein
C. Vitamin C
D. Iron
✅ Answer: B. Protein
Explanation: Kwashiorkor is a severe protein deficiency disorder.
Q25. Pellagra results from deficiency of:
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Niacin (Vitamin B3)
D. Vitamin B6
✅ Answer: C. Niacin (Vitamin B3)
Explanation: Pellagra is characterized by the “3 Ds”—Dermatitis, Diarrhea, and Dementia (with death as the fourth D if untreated).
Environmental & Occupational Health
Q26. Silicosis commonly occurs in:
A. Textile workers
B. Coal miners only
C. Stone cutters and sandblasters
D. Farmers
✅ Answer: C. Stone cutters and sandblasters
Explanation: Silica dust exposure causes irreversible pulmonary fibrosis (silicosis).
Q27. Asbestosis increases the risk of:
A. Liver cancer
B. Mesothelioma
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Leukemia
✅ Answer: B. Mesothelioma
Explanation: Asbestos exposure is strongly associated with malignant mesothelioma.
Q28. Noise-induced hearing loss primarily affects hearing at:
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 4000 Hz
D. 8000 Hz
✅ Answer: C. 4000 Hz
Explanation: A characteristic notch at 4 kHz is typical of occupational noise exposure.
Q29. The ideal residual chlorine level in drinking water after 30 minutes of contact is approximately:
A. 0.1 mg/L
B. 0.5 mg/L
C. 2 mg/L
D. 5 mg/L
✅ Answer: B. 0.5 mg/L
Explanation: Maintaining about 0.5 mg/L free residual chlorine after 30 minutes helps ensure microbiologically safe drinking water.
Q30. Biomedical waste should be segregated:
A. At the treatment facility
B. At the point of generation
C. At the landfill only
D. After transportation
✅ Answer: B. At the point of generation
Explanation: Biomedical Waste Management Rules require segregation at the source using color-coded containers to prevent infection and facilitate safe disposal.
UPSC CMS 2026 Quick Revision (PSM)
- Incidence: New cases
- Prevalence: Existing (new + old) cases
- Rare diseases: Case-control study
- Relative Risk: Cohort study
- Strongest evidence: Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
- Median: Least affected by outliers
- Standard deviation: Measure of dispersion
- Statistical significance: p-value <0.05
- Ayushman Bharat: PM-JAY + Health & Wellness Centres
- NTEP target: TB elimination by 2025
- Mission Indradhanush: Improve routine immunization
- RBSK: 4Ds screening
- BCG route: Intradermal
- OPV: Live attenuated vaccine
- MMR: Contraindicated during pregnancy
- Herd immunity: Protects those who cannot be vaccinated
- Vitamin A deficiency: Night blindness
- Iodine deficiency: Goitre
- Kwashiorkor: Protein deficiency
- Pellagra: Niacin deficiency (3 Ds)
- Silicosis: Stone cutters/sandblasters
- Asbestosis: Risk of mesothelioma
- Noise-induced hearing loss: 4 kHz notch
- Residual chlorine in drinking water: ~0.5 mg/L after 30 minutes
- Biomedical waste: Segregate at the point of generation
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